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Biology Pathology set 2
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Biology Pathology set 2
1
HIV infection
A
Is caused by rhinovirus
B
Results in increased CD4 and T cell memory
C
Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio
D
Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells
2
A typical feature of AIDS
A
Decreased delayed type hypersensitivity reaction
B
Lymphocytosis
C
Hypogammaglobulinaemia
D
Increase CD4 and T cells
3
In reversible cell injury, all are true except
A
ATP depletion is responsible for acute cellular swelling
B
Can cause myocardial cells to cease contraction within 60 seconds C.
C
ATP is generated anaerobically from creatine phosphate
D
Mitochondrial swelling and degranulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular damage
4
Metaplasia
A
Is irreversible
B
Is commonly a change from squamous to columnar epithelium
C
An example is the transformation of epithelial cells into chondroblasts to produce cartilage
D
Retinoids may play a role
5
In apoptosis
A
It involves physiologic and pathologic stimuli
B
Histologically, it involves coagulation necrosis
C
Its DNA breakdown is random and diffuse
D
Its mechanism involves ATP depletion
6
Hyperplasia
A
Occurs after partial hepatectomy
B
Refers to an increase in the size of cells
C
Is always a pathologic process
D
Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle
7
Metastatic calcification
A
Causes widespread tissue damage
B
Occurs with normal calcium levels
C
Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis
D
Occurs in hypothyroidism
8
Mumps virus is a
A
Adenovirus
B
Herpes virus
C
Paramyxovirus
D
Pox virus
9
Prothrombotic characteristics of endothelium include
A
Plasminogen activator
B
Prostacyclin
C
von Willebrand factor
D
Thrombomodulin
10
Regarding giant cell arteritis, which statement is not correct
A
Affects medium arteries
B
Affects small arteries including vertebral
C
Affects small arteries including ophthalmic
D
Has no gastrointestinal manifestations
11
All of the following organisms cause a clinical effect via the production of an exotoxin except
A
Clostridium tetani
B
Staphylococcus aureus
C
E. coli
D
Pseudomonas aerugenosa
12
Select the true statement concerning atherosclerosis
A
Congenital absence of LDL cholesterol leads to premature atherosclerosis
B
Thoracic aorta is more likely to be involved than the abdominal
C
Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year
D
Fatty streaks are destined to become atherosclerotic plaques
13
Select the false statement concerning atherosclerosis
A
Familial hypercholesterolaemia is associated with inadequate hepatic uptake of LDL
B
CMV has been detected in human atheromatous plaques
C
Fibrous atheromatous plaques are capable of regression
D
Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis
14
An infectious complication of transfusion
A
Is most commonly Hepatitis C
B
Is most commonly Hepatitis B
C
Is rarely transmission of HIV since screening was instituted
D
Never includes gonorrhoea or malaria
15
Which of the following is true concerning rhabdomyolysis
A
It is caused by injury to smooth muscle
B
Its diagnosis depends on the presence of characteristic physical findings
C
. The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma
D
Renal failure is due to acute glomerular nephritis
16
Neutrophilia is generally caused by all of the following except
A
Inflammatory disease
B
Bacterial infection
C
Viral infection
D
Corticosteroids
17
Which of the following is true of chronic myeloid leukaemia
A
Most common leukaemia
B
Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level
C
Usually occurs in patients less than 40 years old
D
Increased WBC count with an abnormal differential
18
All of the following are cardiac compensatory responses that occur in heart failure except
A
Cardiac muscle fibre stretching
B
Increased adrenergic receptors on cardiac cells
C
Chamber hypertrophy
D
Decreased heart rate
19
Shock in burn patients is primarily due to
A
Neurogenic factors
B
Hypovolaemia
C
Myocardial depression factor
D
All of the above
20
The immediate lethal dose of radiation exposure for humans in a non-mass casualty situation is
A
50 rads
B
150 rads
C
250 rads
D
450 rads
21
With regard to apoptosis, which of the following is incorrect
A
it may be regarded as a normal physiological process
B
it is characterised by chromatin condensation
C
it often elicits a strong inflammatory response D. it is the process by which ovaries atrophy in post menopausal women
D
it is the process by which ovaries atrophy in post menopausal women
22
With regard to the acute inflammatory response, which is the most common mechanism of vascular leakage
A
endothelial cell contraction
B
junctional retraction
C
direct injury
D
leukocyte-dependent leakage
23
With regard to cellular injury, all of the following are reversible except
A
decreased ATP
B
intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes
C
decreased Na pump activity
D
detachment of ribosomes
24
With regard to the role of complement in the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is incorrect
A
C5a is a powerful, chemotactic agent for neutrophils, monocytes and eosinophils
B
C5a increases leukocyte adhesion to endothelium by activating leukocytes
C
C3a and C5a are called anaphylatoxins because they cause mast cell degranulation
D
. C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes
25
Coagulative necrosis
A
results from necrosis in which cellular enzymatic digestion predominates over denaturation
B
is characterised by a marked leukocytic infiltrate
C
Is uncommon after myocardial infarction
D
usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage
26
Granulomatous inflammation
A
may sometimes be a component of the acute inflammatory response B. E.
B
indicates the presence of tuberculosis
C
is always associated with the presence of giant cells
D
may result from non-immune mechanisms
27
Removal of sutures from a wound at day 7 coincides with a wound strength of
A
1% of unwounded skin strength
B
10% of unwounded skin strength
C
50% of unwounded skin strength
D
75% of unwounded skin strength
28
In a healthy individual over the age of 5 years, lymphocytes are mainly found in
A
bone marrow, thymus, spleen
B
liver, thymus, spleen
C
lymph nodes, spleen, thymus
D
bone marrow, spleen, liver
29
With regard to natural killer lymphocytes
A
constitute less than 5% of blood lymphocytes
B
require opsonisation to enable their killing of cells
C
have a prime role in defense against parasites
D
have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells
30
With regard to B lymphocytes
A
they constitute 50% of circulating lymphocytes
B
they are found in germinal centres in the red pulp of the spleen
C
they are genetically programmed to recognise specific antigens by means of antigen specific cell surface receptors
D
they release chemical mediators when attached to IgE Type I hypersensitivity reactions
31
Transplant rejection involves
A
Type IV hypersensitivity only
B
Type IV and III hypersensitivity only
C
Type IV, III and II hypersensitivity only
D
Type IV and II hypersensitivity only
32
Major immune abnormalities associated with HIV infection include all of the following except
A
hypergammaglobulinaemia
B
inversion of CD4-CD8 ratio
C
decreased delayed hypersensitivity reactions
D
decreased monocyte HLA class II expression
33
Successful immune response to HIV during the acute phase of infection results from
A
increase in the CD4+ lymphocyte numbers
B
appearance of anti-HIV antibodies
C
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D
development of CD8+ virus specific cytotoxic cells
34
With respect to macrophages, which of the following is not true
A
they can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever
B
they have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide
C
they have oxygen dependent microbicidal activity
D
they have cytotoxicity against tumour cells
35
In viral hepatitis
A
the majority of cases of acute Hepatitis B infection result in a carrier state, without clinical evidence of disease
B
anti HB s appears in the first week of infection
C
anti HCV IgG does not confer immunity to Hepatitis C
D
the major cause of death from Hepatitis B is hepatocellular carcinoma
36
The most common cause of pericarditis is
A
SLE
B
drug hypersensitivity
C
trauma
D
post myocardial infarction
37
All of the following are neoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer except
A
Cushing’s syndrome
B
syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
C
hypocalcaemia
D
carcinoid syndrome
38
All of the following are features of rheumatic fever except
A
carditis
B
subcutaneous nodules
C
erythema nodosum
D
elevated antistreptolysin
39
Mediators of septic shock include all of the following except
A
IL6
B
PAF
C
catecholamines
D
TNF antibodies
40
Metaplasia is seen in all of the following except
A
respiratory epithelium of cigarette smokers
B
vitamin A excess
C
Barrett’s oesophagitis
D
epithelium of a pancreatic duct containing stones
41
The commonest site of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis is
A
junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries
B
junction of middle cerebral and internal carotid arteries
C
bifurcation of the basilar artery
D
the middle cerebral artery
42
The virus causing molluscum contagiosum belongs to the following viral family D.
A
adeno
B
herpes
C
parvo
D
pox
43
Most pulmonary emboli
A
cause centrally located pulmonary haemorrhage
B
cause pulmonary infarction
C
cause acute right heart failure
D
are clinically silent
44
Acute pancreatitis
A
may be caused by Helminth infection
B
causes hypercalcaemia
C
develops in 50% of patients with gallstones
D
leads to inhibition of elastase
45
Which of the following is not a para-neoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma
A
ectopic ADH secretion
B
migratory thrombophlebitis
C
Eaton-Lambert (myasthenic) syndrome
D
thrombocytosis
46
Which of the following tumour is benign
A
chondrosarcoma
B
osteochondroma
C
chondroblastoma
D
Ewing’s tumour
47
Which of the following tumour is benign
A
chondrosarcoma
B
osteochondroma
C
chondroblastoma
D
Ewing’s tumour
48
Which of the following is not a feature of acute Crohn’s disease
A
segmental lesions
B
serosal involvement
C
fissures penetrating deep into the wall of affected mucosa
D
inflammatory pseudo-polyps
49
A 50-year old woman presents with back pain. X-rays suggest a malignant deposit in the 10th thoracic vertebra. The least likely primary site is
A
breast
B
ovary
C
thyroid
D
kidney
50
Regarding haemorrhagic infarction of the brain, which of the following is not true
A
it usually results from an embolic event
B
it usually contains multiple petechial haemorrhages which may be confluent
C
the haemorrhages are presumed to be secondary to reperfusion injury
D
the haemorrhages are presumed to be secondary to reperfusion injury
51
The histological appearance of contraction brands in association with acute myocardialinfarction indicate
A
The histological appearance of contraction brands in association with acute myocardialinfarction indicate
B
early aneurysmal formation
C
compensatory responses to decreased myocardial contractility
D
a right ventricular infarct
52
After occlusion of a coronary artery A.
A
the ischaemia is most pronounced in the epicardial region
B
loss of contractility only occurs when ultra structural changes in the myocyte are present
C
reperfusion of the ischaemic area can result in new cellular damage, due to the generation of oxygen free radicals
D
None of the above
53
With regard to aortic dissection, which is incorrect
A
it tends to occur in 40-60 year old men
B
approximately 90% of non-traumatic cases occur in patients with antecedent hypertension
C
it is usually associated with marked dilatation of the aorta
D
it is unusual in the presence of substantial atherosclerosis
54
The most common site of origin of emboli causing cerebrovascular disease is
A
common carotid artery
B
internal carotid artery
C
the heart
D
either end of basilar artery
55
Which of the following is malignant
A
Squamous cell papilloma
B
Hydatidiform mole
C
Chondroma
D
Mature teratoma
56
Anaplasia is not characterised by
A
pleomorphism
B
Abundant nuclear DNA
C
A nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:6
D
Coarsely clumped chromatin
57
All of the following are precancerous except
A
Chronic gastritis of pernicious anaemia
B
Solar keratosis
C
Crohn’s disease
D
Leukoplakia
58
Prothrombogenic factors include all of the following except
A
Platelet activating factor
B
Von Willebrand factor
C
Nitric oxide
D
Tissue factor
59
In acute inflammation, all of the following are true except
A
there is contraction of endothelial cells
B
there is a mononuclear infiltrate
C
there is induction of adhesion molecules on endothelium
D
there is production of arachidonic acid metabolites
60
Cellular events in acute inflammation include all of the following except
A
redistribution of preformed adhesion molecules to the cell surface of leukocytes
B
adhesion and transmigration of leukocytes to endothelium
C
leukocyte activation
D
margination of macrophages to vessel walls
61
The factor conferring the most risk in thromboembolic disease is
A
smoking
B
atrial fibrillation
C
oral contraceptives
D
prolonged bed rest
62
Systemic lupus erythematosus
A
has a female : male gender ratio of 2:1
B
is characterised by antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)
C
rarely involves the kidney
D
is associated with a seronegative arthropathy causing marked joint erosion
63
The most common cause of Traveller’s diarrhoea is
A
Rotavirus
B
E.coli
C
Shigella
D
Salmonella
64
Iron deficiency anaemia features
A
a normal haematocrit
B
increased serum ferritin
C
normal mean red cell volume
D
None of the above
65
In compensated heart failure
A
right atrial pressure drops
B
maximum cardiac output is unchanged
C
resting cardiac output is unchanged
D
renin level eventually drops below premorbid level
66
Infective endocarditis
A
in the acute form, is most commonly caused by streptococci
B
involves abnormal valves in most acute cases
C
is confirmed by positive blood cultures in less than 50% of cases
D
may cause splenic infarction
67
Cor Pulmonale may be caused by
A
congenital heart disease
B
mitral stenosis
C
left ventricular failure
D
primary pulmonary hypertension
68
Regarding peptic ulceration
A
it occurs most commonly in the antrum of the stomach
B
it has a strong genetic influence
C
there is H. pylori infection of the mucosa in 50% of patients with duodenal ulceration
D
it is more frequent in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
69
The major abnormalities of immune function in AIDS are characterised by
A
Inversion of the CD4-CD8 ratio
B
Increase in the number of memory T cells
C
Hypogammaglobulinaemia and decreased circulating immune complexes
D
Decreased secretion of TNF and IL-1
70
Regarding hypersensitivity reactions
A
In anaphylaxis, IgE is bound to mast cells by their Fab portions to release vasoactive amines
B
Goodpasture’s syndrome is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction
C
Farmer’s lung is a type III reaction to micropolyspora species
D
Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by macrophages
71
Acute appendicitis
A
In preschool children, it usually presents with the so-called “classic†signs and symptoms
B
It is associated with appendiceal obstruction in 10% of cases
C
Histologically, it shows neutrophilic infiltration of the muscularis layer
D
The clinical diagnosis is falsely positive in about 50% of cases
72
Pneumocystis carinii
A
Produces pneumocystis pneumonia in normal persons
B
Causes a Ghon’s focus in the lung
C
Causes patchy atelectasis
D
Is a fungus
73
Regarding septic shock
A
Endotoxin is the only cause
B
Marked vasoconstriction occurs in the non-infected tissue
C
Cardiac output is low in 75% of patients
D
Endotoxin entering the circulation causes an effect very similar to anaphylaxis
74
Acute pancreatitis
A
Is associated with increased serum amylase concentration without elevation in serum lipase concentration
B
Occurs most often in later life
C
Occurs in about 5% of patients with gallstones
D
When associated with alcohol is not usually preceded by chronic pancreatitis
75
The acute nephritic syndrome has all of the following features except
A
Proteinuria
B
Haematuria
C
Hypertension
D
Hyaline casts
76
A young baby presents with jaundice, dark urine and pale stools. He is most likely to have
A
Physiologic jaundice of the newborn
B
Breast milk jaundice
C
Gilbert’s syndrome
D
Biliary atresia
77
With regard to the leukocyte extravasation of the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is incorrect
A
ELAM-1 is a selectin found on endothelium
B
E and P-selectins bind to oligosaccharides found on neutrophils and monocytes
C
L-selectin is found on neutrophils, monocytes and lymphocytes
D
ICAM-1 belongs to the immunoglobulin family of molecules, and is found on leukocytes
78
IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reactions require the action of which lymphocyte class
A
CD8 T cells and B cells
B
Tµ2 T cells and B cells
C
Tµ1 T cells and B cells
D
Natural Killer cells and B cells
79
Thrombus formation is inhibited by
A
Von Willebrands factor
B
IL-1
C
Alpha 2 macroglobulin
D
TNF
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